Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 06:38
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do people ask stupid questions on Quora when they instead could ask ChatGPT?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How can I fall asleep fast at night?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
He said he loves me, but why is it difficult for him to leave his wife?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.